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Mikeymike77 · 04-07-2009

Hey I am trying to do this formula but I can't work out the last number to get answer the bit I can't do is the 10-6 to get the answer.

frequency of 1 KHZ

2x3.142x1000 x220x10-6 - = 723.4ohms

Frequency 20 KHZ

2x3.142x20000x220x10-9 = 36.2ohms

Can anyone describe how to do the last number? Because on a calculater I don't the same number in ohms ?

04-07-2009	#1 (permalink)
Mikeymike77 Member Join Date: May 2009 Location: North West Lancashire Posts: 38 Thanks: 0 Thanked 2 Times in 2 Posts	Working out Impediance need help! Hey I am trying to do this formula but I can't work out the last number to get answer the bit I can't do is the 10-6 to get the answer. frequency of 1 KHZ 2x3.142x1000 x220x10-6 - = 723.4ohms Frequency 20 KHZ 2x3.142x20000x220x10-9 = 36.2ohms Can anyone describe how to do the last number? Because on a calculater I don't the same number in ohms ? Last edited by Mikeymike77; 04-07-2009 at 06:55 PM..